Bleh, not very scientific, but then again, I haven't worked with tangents and secants in quite some time now (at least 5 years...)
Well, firstly, the only time a vertex of y=ax^2+bx, will occur at the origin is when b=0, since the bx term is a linear shift. Now we are working with y=ax^2.
For arguements sake, set a=1, arbitrarily, since it is the easiest to work with.
This means, we can take the two easiest points, (0,0) and (1,1). The arithmetic mean of the x terms is (1+0)/2 = 1/2.
So at x=1/2, y=(1/2)^2=1/4.
The slope of the secant line for points (0,0) and (1,1) is m=1.
Here comes the "not-so-scientific" part of the proof.
For a slope of the tangent line at point (1/2, 1/4) to be m=1, a quick check can be used. If x=0.5000001, then at a slope of 1, y=0.2500001. However, when you plug x=0.5000001 into y=x^2, you get y=0.25000010000001, which is not what we expected. The same happens for any number you plug in, showing that the slope must be 1, which is equal to the secant's slope. The only reason I used such a small number is to show that even at infinitly small increments, the points from a slope = 1 will never touch the y=x^2 curve again.
However, another quick check would be to use a slope = 1.000001. Again, if you plug in numbers for x, you will see that at another point, which I don't feel like finding, there will be a corresponding y point that matches the curve, which shows the line is not tangent.
If you really wanted, you could keep the "a" term and you will see that the coefficients of the "a" term won't line up with a slope of the secant, which is good, but with any other slope, the coefficients will match, showing that the line is not tangent. Bleh.
Like I said, had I been thinking, this is much easier, but I now take for granted what the meaning of particular methods are, such as is the actual proof for solving this problem.